Monday, October 17, 2016

CCNAv3 Chapter 5 Quiz Answers (100%)




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Below is the Chapter 5 Quiz for CCNA 3, hand-crafted by yours truly. 

We have included the tutorial/explanations from the quiz page to help describe each response. Most answer pages don't ever have a tutorial section-- this is the least we could do.




To view the answers to this quiz, click the following link if you have not done so already.

Chapter 5 Quiz: OSPF

Question 1
What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use?

  • to activate the OSPF neighboring process 
  • to influence the DR/BDR election process***
  • to provide a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process 
  • to streamline and speed up the convergence process



Missed this question? See below for some assistance!
Refer to curriculum topic: 5.1.2


Question 1
What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use?

  • to activate the OSPF neighboring process 
  • to influence the DR/BDR election process***
  • to provide a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process 
  • to streamline and speed up the convergence process



Missed this question? See below for some assistance!
Refer to curriculum topic: 5.1.2


Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank. Use a number. The process ID that is used for OSPFv3 on the router R1 is _____.

i212803v1n2_212803.png
  • "10" or "ten"***


Missed this question? See below for some assistance!

The image above shows that "IPv6 Routering Protocol is OSPF 10"; note that in OSPF for IPv6, the router ID is not the process ID, but rather it is the display as shown above.

Question 3
Match the OSPF adjacency function with the correct state. (Not all options are used.)

A. Routers receive hello packets that contain the router ID of the neighboring device.

B. On Ethernet links, a designated router (DR) and a backup designated router (BDR) is elected.

C. Routers exchange DBD packets.
  • A: Init State***
  • B: Two-Way State***
  • C: Exchange State***



Missed this question? See below for some assistance!
Refer to curriculum topic: 5.2.1

The Full state indicates that the routers in the domain have converged.


Question 4
Consider the R1(config-if)# ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 CISCO-123 command. What is the function of the CISCO-123 portion of the command?

  • It is used as a password.***
  • It is used as the key index. 
  • It is used to choose the type of authentication. 
  • It is used to name the OSPFv2 process.



Missed this question? See below for some assistance!
Refer to curriculum topic: 5.1.4 The R1(config-if)# ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 CISCO-123 command enables MD5 authentication for a given interface on a router that is running OSPFv2. The CISCO-123 portion is the password.


Question 5
Which command will verify that a router running OSPFv3 has received a redistributed default static route from another OSPFv3 router?

  • default-information originate 
  • redistribute static 
  • show ipv6 route*** 
  • show ip route



Missed this question? See below for some assistance!
Refer to curriculum topic: 5.1.2
OSPFv3 is used for IPv6 routing. When the default route is redistributed, neighboring routers will display the route source as OE2 in their IPv6 routing tables. The show ip route command is used to display the IPv4 routing table. The default-information originate command is used in the source OSPFv3 router to initiate the static route redistribution. EIGRP uses the redistribute static command.


Question 6
Which three parameters should match in order for a pair of routers to form an adjacency when running OSPFv2? (Choose three.)

  • router ID 
  • OSPFv2 process number 
  • OSPFv2 type of network***
  • hello timer***
  • interface priority 
  • subnet mask***



Missed this question? See below for some assistance!
Refer to curriculum topic: 5.2.1
For a couple of routers that are running OSPFv2 to form an adjacency, the following parameters must match: subnet mask, network type, hello and dead timers, a corresponding network command, and the authentication information.


Question 7
Refer to the exhibit. These four routers are connected together on the same LAN segment. Based on the output shown, which of these routers will be elected to be the DR for the segment?

i212835v1n1_212835.png
  • R1
  • R2***
  • R3 
  • R4



Missed this question? See below for some assistance!
Refer to curriculum topic: 5.1.1
The router with the highest priority is elected as the designated router (DR). Because both R1 and R2 have the same priority (20), the router ID must be used as the tie-breaker. R2 has the higher router ID (2.2.2.2), so it is elected as the DR.


Question 8
Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations. 
The command _____________ is used to display only OSPFv3 learned routes.
i212802v1n2_212802.png
  • show ipv6 route ospf***



Missed this question? See below for some assistance!
Intuition is the only way to learn. Know the commands.


Question 9
Refer to the exhibit. Which command did an administrator issue to produce this output?
i212843v1n1_212843.jpg
  • R1# show ip ospf 
  • R1# show ip ospf neighbor 
  • R1# show ip ospf interface serial0/0/1***
  • R1# show ip route ospf



Missed this question? See below for some assistance!
Refer to curriculum topic: 5.2.2


Question 10
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the local serial 0/0/0 interface. Why are they not forming an adjacency?
i212841v1n2_212841.jpg
  • They are in different subnets.***
  • They have different routing processes. 
  • They have different router IDs. 
  • The connecting interfaces are configured as passive.



Missed this question? See below for some assistance!
Refer to curriculum topic: 5.2.2
The routers need to be in the same subnet in order to form an adjacency. The routing processes can be different on each router. The router IDs must be different for routers that participate in the same routing domain. The interfaces are not passive.




Question 11
Here is a link to the PT Activity (no link)

Open the PT Activity. 
Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Which routers are the DR and BDR in this topology?

  • DR:R1 BDR:R2 
  • DR:R6 BDR:R5 
  • DR:R5 BDR:R3 
  • DR:R3 BDR:R6 
  • DR:R4 BDR:R1
  • DR:R3 BDR:R5***



Missed this question? See below for some assistance!
Refer to curriculum topic: 5.1.1
Once OSPF neighbor adjacencies have formed, use the show ip ospf neighbors command to determine which router was elected the DR and which router was elected the BDR. In this scenario, R3 was elected the DR because it had the highest priority (10). R5 was elected the BDR because it had the highest router ID among eligible routers (5.5.5.5). R6 was not eligible to become the BDR because its priority was set to 0.

Question 12
What statement describes the reference bandwidth in OSPFv3? 
  • It prevents the router from automatically adjusting the bandwidth. 
  • It increases the speed of the link to accommodate increasing demands for bandwidth. 
  • It should be changed if links faster than 100 Mb/s exist in the OSPF network.***
  • It is set to 1 Gb/s by default.



Missed this question? See below for some assistance!
Refer to curriculum topic: 5.3.1
The default reference-bandwidth for OSPF is 100 Mb/s (Fast Ethernet speed). However, most modern infrastructure devices have links that are faster than 100 Mb/s. With the default setting, all links with transmission speeds of 100 Mb/s or higher have a cost of 1. This results in Fast Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet, and 10G Ethernet interfaces all having the same cost. Therefore, the reference-bandwidth must be changed to a higher value to accommodate networks with links faster that 100 Mb/s.


Question 13
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations. The ______________ command is used when configuring an OSPFv2 router to redistribute only a static default route.

  • default-information originate***



Missed this question? See below for some assistance!
A command that you should know already.



END OF QUIZ! Answers should be correct (or at least a 90%). Make sure to comment specifically what is incorrect or what you may have missed if you did not score correctly.

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